Top 50+ Reproductive Health - Biology Questions and Answers For NEET 2024 Exam Preparation

Q1. The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum is assisted by reproductive technology is called

1. ZIFT
2. GIFT
3. ICSI
4. ET

Answer: (c)

ICSI (India Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection) is a specialised method to form an embryo in the laboratory in which a sperm is directly injected into the ovum placed in a nutrient broth.

GIFT (Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer) is a procedure in which eggs are removed from woman's ovary with man sperm and transferred to one of the fallopian tube.

ZIFT (Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer) is a procedure(similar to in vitro fertilisation and embryo transfer in which the zygote (early embryo) up to 8 blastomeres is transferred directly into the Fallopian tube.

ET (Embryo Transfer) is a method in which the fertilisation occurs in vitro and the zygote formed is transferred into the uterus of the female who cannot conceive.

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Q2. One of the legal methods of birth control is

1. by a premature ejaculation during coitus
2. abortion by taking an appropriate medicine
3. by having coitus at the time of day break
4. by abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle

Answer: (b)

Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy by taking an appropriate medicine before full term is called medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) or induced abortion. Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed in a year all over the world which account to 1/5th of the total number of conceived pregnancies in a year.

MTP has a significant role in decreasing the population though it is not meant for that purpose. Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions to avoid its misuse. Such restrictions are all the more important to check indiscriminate and illegal female foeticides.

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Q3. Which of the following principle will not help people to become free from the infection of sexually transmitted diseases?

1. Always use condoms in the course of coitus.
2. Avoid sex with unknown partners/multiple partners
3. Refer any one in case of doubt for early detection and diagnose of disease and get complete treatment.
4. In case of doubt, go to a qualified doctor for early detection and get complete treatment if diagnosed with disease.
5. Involvement in sex with known partners/single partners

1. (i), (ii), (iii) only
2. (i), (iv) only
3. (i), (ii), (iv) only
4. All of these.

Answer: (c)

Sexually transmitted infections (STI), also referred to as sexually transmitted diseases (STD) and venereal diseases (VD), are infections that are commonly spread by sex, especially vaginal intercourse, anal sex and oral sex.

Most STIs initially do not cause symptoms. Symptoms and signs of disease may include: vaginal discharge, penile discharge, ulcers on or around the genitals, and pelvic pain. Principle i, ii, and iv will not help people to become free from the infection of sexually transmitted diseases.

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Q4. MTPs are considered relatively safe during the ______ weeks of pregnancy.

1. 15
2. 12
3. 18
4. 20

Answer: (b)

MTP is the intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy before term. MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester, i.e., up to 12 weeks of pregnancy.

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Q5. Match the following columns.

Codes A B C D

1. 2 3 4 1
2. 1 2 4 3
3. 2 3 1 4
4. 4 3 2 1

Answer: (a)

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Q6. The copper ions of IUDs

1. make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
2. suppress the motility and fertilization capacity of sperms.
3. increase phagocytosis of sperms.
4. make cervix hostile to sperms.

Answer: (b)

The Cu ions released suppress sperm motility and the fertilizing capacity of sperms.

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Q7. The formula for exponential population growth is

1. dt/dN = rN
2. dN/dt = rN
3. dN/rN = dt
4. rN/dN = dt.

Answer: (b)

Nearly all populations will tend to grow exponentially as long as there are resources available. The formula for exponential population growth is dN/ dt = rN.

In this equation d is the rate of change, N is the number of existing individuals, r is the intrinsic growth rate, t is time, and dN/dt is the rate of change in population size.

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Q8. Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive ?

Answer: (d)

Vasectomy is a surgical procedure for male sterilization or permanent contraception. During the procedure, the male vas deferens are severed and then tied or sealed in a manner so as to prevent sperm from entering into the seminal stream (ejaculate) and thereby prevent fertilization.

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Q9. Multiload 375 is a

1. New viral vector
2. Disease resistant crop
3. Intrauterine Device
4. Biological warfare device

Answer: (c)

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Q10. Cu ions released from copper-releasing intrauterine devices (IUDs)

1. increase phagocytosis of sperms
2. make uterus unsuitable for implantation
3. suppress sperm motility
4. prevent ovulation.

Answer: (c)

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Q11. Match the following columns.

Codes A B C D

1. 4 1 3 2
2. 1 3 2 4
3. 1 2 3 4
4. 1 2 4 3

Answer: (c)

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Q12. Which of the following contraceptives is one of the most widely accepted method of contraception in India?

1. Intra Uterine device
2. Sterilization
3. Withdrawal or coitus interruption
4. Medical termination of pregnancy

Answer: (a)

Intra uterine device, the most widely accepted method of contraception in India, is a method of birth control. It is designed for insertion into a woman's uterus so that changes occur in the uterus that makes it difficult for fertilization of an egg and implantation of a pregnancy. IUDs also have been referred to as " intrauterine contraception (IUC).

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Q13. The technique called gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females:

1. who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus.
2. who cannot produce an ovum
3. whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage for the sperms
4. who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation

Answer: (b)

Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females who cannot produce an ovum. In this process, the eggs of the donor woman are removed and in a form of mixture with sperm, transferred into fallopian tube of another woman who cannot produce ovum, but can provide suitable environment for fertilization. Thus in GIFT, site of fertilization is fallopian tube, not laboratory.

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Q14. Assertion (A): Artificial insemination is method of introduction of semen inside the female.
Reason (R): This technique is used in those cases where males have low sperm count.

1. If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
2. If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
3. If A is true, but R is false
4. If A is false, but R is true

Answer: (b)

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Q15. In a population, unrestricted reproductive capacity is called as

1. fertility rate
2. biotic potential
3. carrying capacity
4. birth rate.

Answer: (b)

Biotic potential is defined as the physiological capacity of organisms to produce their offspring under natural conditions. It is also called reproductive potential. In nature, the biotic potential of organisms is enormous but all the organisms do not survive due to the lack of food and space.

There are also a number of diseases and the predatory organisms, that feed upon other organisms. The carrying capacity is the maximum number of individuals which the environment can support or sustain.

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Q16. Match the following columns.

Codes A B C D E F

1. 1 3 2 1 3 2
2. 1 1 2 3 2 3
3. 2 1 2 1 3 3
4. 1 3 1 2 1 2

Answer: (d)

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Q17. Lactational amenorrhea is the

1. absence of menses in elderly age
2. absence of menses in adult age
3. absence of menses during lactation
4. no menses during pregnancy

Answer: (c)

Lactational amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation during lactation. It is a natural contraception method in which the chances of conception are almost nil in a breastfeeding mother due to the absence of ovulation. This method is effective only up to a maximum period of six months after childbirth.

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Q18. Artificial insemination means

1. Transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova.
2. Transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube containing ova.
3. Artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina.
4. Introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly into the ovary.

Answer: (c)

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Q19. Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population will

1. result in decline in growth rate
2. cause rapid increase in growth rate
3. not cause significant change in growth rate
4. result in an explosive population

Answer: (c)

IMR (Infant Mortality Rate) and MMR (Maternal Mortality Rate) both are responsible for affecting the growth rate inversely. Here, if IMR has been increased then it will result in decline in growth rate.

While, decreased MMR will cause rapid increase in growth rate. Therefore, in the above situation, if IMR has been increased and MMR has been decreased in a population, it will not cause any significant change in growth rate.

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Q20. Genetic drift operates only in

1. smaller populations
2. island populations
3. larger populations
4. Mendelian populations

Answer: (a)

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Q21. IUDs-

1. Increase phagocytosis of sperms.
2. Release Cu ions that suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms.
3. Make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
4. Make the cervix hostile to sperms.
5. Prevent semen from entering the female reproductive tract.

1. 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
3. 1 and 2
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a)

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Q22. Assertion (A): Use of condoms is a safeguard against AIDS and sexual diseases besides preventing pregnancy.

Reason (R): Certain contraceptives are planted under the skin of the upper arm to prevent pregnancy.

1. If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
2. If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
3. If A is true, but R is false
4. If A is false, but R is true

Answer: (a)

Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion. The correct explanation is as follows Condoms act as a barrier that prevents the male ejaculate from entering female body and thus avoids conception and also prevents the transmission of STDs such as AIDS. In females, implants are placed under the skin as the method of contraceptive.

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Q23. Human population growth in India

1. tends to reach zero population growth as in case of some animal species
2. tends to follow a sigmoid curve as in case of many other animal species
3. can be reduced by permitting natural calamities and enforcing birth control measures
4. can be regulated by following the National programme of family planning

Answer: (d)

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Q24. Identity the characteristic which an ideal contraceptive should not have.

1. Easily available
2. Use friendly
3. Non reversible
4. Least side effect

Answer: (c)

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Q25. Which statements show the correct purpose of contraceptive pills?

1. They inhibit ovulation and implantation.
2. They alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent or retard the entry of sperms.
3. They prevent the ejaculated semen from entering the female vagina.
4. They inhibit spermatogenesis.

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I and II
4. I, II, III and IV

Answer: (c)

Statements I and II show the correct purpose of contraceptive pills. Statements III and IV are incorrect and can be corrected

• Condoms prevent the ejaculated semen from entering the female vagina.
• Contraceptive pills have not effect on spermatogenesis.

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Q26. Cu ions released from copper-releasing Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs)

1. increase phagocytosis of sperms
2. make uterus unsuitable for implantation
3. suppress sperm motility
4. prevent ovulation

Answer: (c)

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Q27. Smaller families can be encouraged by using various

1. Contraceptive methods
2. Educational methods
3. Abortive methods
4. Rhythm method

Answer: (a)

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Q28. The 'Pills' have to be taken for contraception continuously for a period ________ days.

1. 21
2. 22
3. 24
4. 25

Answer: (a)

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Q29. Sterilization techniques are generally foolproof methods of contraception with minimum side effects. Yet, this is the last option for the couples because

1. It is almost irreversible
2. Of the misconception that it will reduce sexual urge/drive
3. It is a surgical procedure
4. Of lack of sufficient facilities in many parts of the country

Choose the correct option:

1. ii and iii
2. i and iii
3. ii and iv
4. i, ii, iii and iv

Answer: (d)

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Q30. Copper-T is a device that prevents

1. ovulation
2. implantation of blastocyst
3. fertilization
4. egg maturation

Answer: (b)

Copper 'T' is an intrauterine device which prevents the fertilized egg from becoming implanted in the wall of the womb.

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Q31. What is true for an ideal contraceptive ?

1. It should be user-friendly.
2. It should be easily available.
3. It should be ineffective and reversible with least side effects.
4. It should be effective and reversible with least side effects.
5. It should interfere with the sexual act of the user.

1. (i), (ii) and (iii)
2. All of these
3. (i), (ii) and (iv)
4. (i),(ii), (iv) and (v)

Answer: (c)

An ideal contraceptive should be user-friendly, easily available, effective and reversible with no or least side effects.

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Q32. In India, which gender is generally wrongly blamed for being infertile?

1. Man
2. Woman
3. Either man or woman
4. Genetic factors

Answer: (b)

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Q33. Hysteresctomy is surgical removal of :

1. Vas-deference
2. Prostate gland
3. Mammary glands
4. Uterus

Answer: (d)

A hysterectomy is a surgery in which woman ’s uterus is removed. It is adopted for the treatment of uterine fibroids and cancer of uterine zone.

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Q34. Which of the following groups of contraceptives are included under barrier methods?

1. IUDs, Diaphragm, Abstinence, Injections
2. Condom, Vaults, IUDs, Cervical caps
3. Condom, Diaphragm, Cervical caps, Vaults
4. Surgical methods, Oral contraceptives, Cervical caps, vaults

Answer: (c)

Condom, diaphragm, cervical caps, and vaults are included under barrier methods of contraception. Barrier methods of birth control are physical or chemical barriers that prevent sperm from passing through the woman's cervix into the uterus and fallopian tubes to fertilize an egg. Some methods also protect against sexually transmitted disease (STDs).

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Q35. A national level approach to build up a reproductively healthy society was taken up in our country in

1. 1960s
2. 1950s
3. 1980s
4. 1990s

Answer: (b)

India was the first amongst countries in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at a national level to attain total reproductive health as a social goal. The programmes called 'family planning' were initiated in 1951 and were periodically assessed over the past decades.

To create awareness among people about various reproduction related aspects, providing facilities and support for building up a reproductively healthy society are the major tasks of these programmes.

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Q36. Tubectomy is a method of sterilisation in which

1. ovaries are removed surgically
2. small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up
3. small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up
4. uterus is removed surgically

Answer: (c)

Sterilisation provides a permanent and sure birth control. In females, it is called tubectomy. Tubectomy involves the blocking of the fallopian tubes. A small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up through a small incision in the abdomen or through vagina.

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Q37. In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?

1. GIFT and ZIFT
2. ICSI and ZIFT
3. ZIFT and IUT
4. GIFT and ICSI

Answer: (c)

In vitro fertilisation, i.e.,fertilisation outside the body in almost similar conditions as that in the body, followed by embryo transfer (ET) method. In this method, ova from the wife or donor (female) and sperms from husband or donor (male) are collected and are induced to form zygote under simulated conditions in the laboratory.

The zygote or early embryos (with upto 8 blastomeres) could then be transferred into the fallopian tube (ZIFT–Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer) and embryos with more than 8 blastomeres, into the uterus (IUT – Intra Uterine Transfer), to complete its further development.

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Q38. Surgical method for terminal contraception work on which of the following grounds?

1. Block gamete generation
2. Block gamete transport
3. Alter biochemical nature of gamete
4. Destroys gamete permanently

Answer: (b)

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Q39. The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in numbers during rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show?

1. The food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season
2. S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect
3. Its population growth curve is of J-type
4. The population of its predators increases enormously

Answer: (c)

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Q40. Birth control pills check ovulation in female by inhibiting the secretion of –

1. luteinizing hormone
2. follicle stimulating hormone
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of the above

Answer: (c)

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Q41. Assertion: Coitus interruptus is method of contraception.

Reason: It prevents insemination.

1. If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
2. If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
3. If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
4. If both the assertion and reason are false.

Answer: (b)

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Q42. A childless couple can be assisted to have a child through a technique called GIFT. The full form of this technique is

1. Germ cell Internal Fallopian Transfer
2. Gamete Internal Fertilisation and Transfer
3. Gamete Inseminated Fallopian Transfer
4. Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer.

Answer: (d)

Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) is an assisted reproductive technology in which both the sperm and unfertilised oocytes are transferred into the Fallopian tubes. Fertilisation takes place in vivo (inside the body of the female).

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Q43. Amniocentesis is a technique

1. by which any chromosomal anomalies in the foetus can be detected
2. by which the essential amino acids in the body can be estimated
3. in which the sex of the foetus can be reversed
4. that can be used for correcting genetic disorders of the foetus

Answer: (a)

Amniocentesis is the most widely used method for prenatal detection of many genetic disorders. It is also a technique used for determining the sex of the foetus.

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Q44. Which of the following statements are false?

1. Abortions could happen spontaneously too.
2. Oral pills are very popular contraceptives among the rural women.
3. Removal of gonads can be considered as a contraceptive option.
4. Sex education is necessary in schools.
5. Amniocentesis for sex-determination is banned in our country.

Correct option is

1. II, III and IV
2. I, II and III
3. III, IV and V
4. II and III

Answer: (d)

Statements II and III are correct and can be corrected as

• Contraceptive oral pills are most popular among urban women.
• Removal of gonads is not a contraceptive procedure. Rest other statements are true.

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Q45. Assertion: There is decrease in maternal and infant mortality rates nowadays.

Reason: Better awareness about sex related matter, increased number of medical assisted deliveries and better post-natal care leading to it.

1. If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
2. If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
3. If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
4. If both the assertion and reason are false.

Answer: (b)

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Q46. The technique called gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females

1. who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus.
2. who cannot produce an ovum.
3. whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage for the sperms.
4. who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilization.

Answer: (b)

Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females who cannot produce an ovum. In this process, the eggs of the donor woman are removed and in a form of mixture with sperm transferred into fallopian tube of another woman who cannot produce ovum, but can provide suitable environment for fertilization. Thus in GIFT, site of fertilization is fallopian tube, not laboratory.

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Q47. The surgical procedure indicated in the figure is

1. Hysterectomy
2. Tubectomy
3. Vasectomy
4. Orchidectomy

Answer: (b)

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Q48. Which of the following option is correct regarding the diagram given below?

1. It is a device made of thin rubber/ latex sheath and are used to cover penis in the male.
2. It is a device made of rubber and inserted into the female reproductive tract to cover the cervix during coitus.
3. This device is inserted by doctors in the uterus through vagina and increases phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
4. It is a set of 6-small plastic capsules (called implant) which are placed under the skin of a women’s upper arm and it prevent pregnancy.

Answer: (d)

The given figure is a contraceptive implant. It is a small flexible tube which is inserted under the skin (typically the upper arm) and prevents pregnancy by releasing hormones that prevent ovaries from releasing eggs and by thickening cervical mucus.

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Q49. Which portion of the female reproductive system is cut and ligated as in the figure?

reproductive-health-neet-mcq-8-26-63-64.png

1. Fallopian tubes
2. Uterus
3. Ovary
4. Cervix

Answer: (a)

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Q50. Identify the correct statements.

1. Lactation have no role in preventing conception
2. Infertility is the inability to produce viable offspring due to the defects in the female or male partner
3. Abstaining from coitus from day 10-17 of menstrual cycle when ovulation is expected constitutes natural method of contraception
4. Both (b) and (c)

Answer: (d)

These Statements are correct. Remaining can be corrected as Lactation prevents conception because ovulation and menstrual cycle does not occur during the period of intense lactation up to 6 months following parturition.

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