Top 100+ Human Health and Diseases - Biology Questions and Answers For NEET 2024 Exam Preparation

Q1. Diseases are broadly grouped into infectious and non-infectious diseases. In the list given below, identify the infectious diseases.

1. Cancer
2. Influenza
3. Allergy
4. Smallpox

1. II and III
2. I and II
3. III and IV
4. II and IV

Answer: (d)

Influenza which is commonly known as the 'flu' is an infectious disease of birds and mammals that caused by influenza viruses. The most common symptoms are chill, fever, runny nose, sore throat, muscle pain, headache, coughing, weakness/fatigue and discomfort. Cancer is defined as an uncontrolled division or proliferation of cells without any differentiation. It is non-infectious disease caused by the agents called carcinogens.

Smallpox is a serious, highly contagious and often life-threatening disease characterised by a rash and (blisters)on the face, arms and legs. It is caused by the Variola virus. It gets transmitted from a person to others by various means like sneeze, saliva, contaminated body fluids, etc.

The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens in the environment (pollen, dust, mites, moulds, cloth fibres, animal hair, etc) is known as allergy. It occurs due to the release of chemicals like histamine and serotonin from the mast cells. It is non-infectious response.

---

Q2. The main reason why antibodies could not solve all the problems of bacteria mediated disease is

1. development of mutant strains resistant to antibodies
2. insensitivity of the individual following prolonged exposure to antibiotics
3. decreased efficiency of the immune system
4. inactivation of antibiotics by bacterial enzymes.

Answer: (a)

Bacteria develop mutant strains that become resistant to antibodies, so these antibodies become incapable of removing bacteria mediated diseases.

---

Q3. The antibodies are

1. lipids
2. carbohydrates
3. proteins
4. germs

Answer: (c)

---

Q4. Immunization is also known as

1. Innate immunity
2. Passive immunity
3. Vaccination
4. Resistance

Answer: (c)

---

Q5. Which of the following diseases causes internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anaemia and blockage of the intestinal passage?

1. Filariasis
2. Ascariasis
3. Amoebiasis
4. Trypanosomiasis

Answer: (b)

Symptoms of ascariasis includes internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anaemia and blockage of the intestinal passage. Ascariasis is caused by an endoparasite of human, Ascaris lumbricoides commonly called roundworm.

---

Q6. Which of the following are the reason(s) for rheumatoid arthritis? Choose the correct option.

1. Lymphocytes become more active
2. Body attacks self cells
3. More antibodies are produced in the body
4. The ability to differentiate pathogens or foreign molecules from self cell is lost

1. II and IV
2. I and II
3. III and IV
4. I and III

Answer: (a)

Autoimmunity is an abnormal immune response in which the immune system of the body starts rejecting its own body cells or 'self' cells. Sometimes, body looses its ability to differentiate between pathogen or foreign molecules from self cell and attack self-cells. This results in damage to the body.

While if any foreign antigen enters into body the lymphocytes become more active and produces more antibodies in its response in the body.

---

Q7. Which one of the following options gives the correct match of a disease with its causative organism and mode of infection?

Answer: (b)

---

Q8. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in

1. Gut of female Anopheles
2. Human liver
3. Human RBCs
4. Salivary glands of Anopheles

Answer: (a)

---

Q9. Match the disease in column I with the appropriate items (pathogen/ prevention/ treatment) in column II.

1. A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv)
2. A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (i)
3. A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iii), D – (iv)
4. A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (iii)

Answer: (b)

---

Q10. Which of the following statements regarding drugs are correct ?

1. Heroin, commonly called smack, is obtained by acetylation of morphine.
2. Cocaine is obtained from the latex of Papaver somniferum.
3. Marijuana interferes with the transmission of dopamine.
4. Morphine is an effective sedative and pain killer.

1. (i) and (iv)
2. (i) and (ii)
3. (ii) and (iii)
4. (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (a)

1. Heroine, commonly called as smack, is a white colourless, bitter crystalline compound. This is obtained by acetylation of morphine which is extracted from the latex of the poppy plant, Papaver somniferum.
2. Cocaine is obtained from the coca plant, Erthyroxylum coca. Cocaine is commonly called as coke or crack which is usually snored. It has a potent stimulating action of euphoria and increased energy. Its increased dosages cause hallucinations.
3. Marijuana interferes with the transmission of endogenous cannabinoids (anandamide).
4. Morphine is a very effective sedative and painkiller. It is very useful in the patients who undergone surgery.

---

Q11. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct answer from codes given below.

1. A-(III), B-(IV), C-(II), D-(I)
2. A-(IV), B-(II), C-(I), D-(III)
3. A-(II), B-(III), C-(I), D-(IV)
4. A-(I), B-(III), C-(IV), D-(II)

Answer: (d)

---

Q12. Passive immunity was discovered by

1. Robert Koch
2. Emil von Behring
3. Edward Jenner
4. Louis Pasteur

Answer: (b)

---

Q13. The use of Cannabis products (bhang, ganja, charas, marijuana or hashish) causes

1. alters thoughts, perceptions and feelings
2. depression of brain activity and feeling of calmness
3. suppresses brain function and relieves pain
4. stimulates the nervous system and increases alertness and activity.

Answer: (a)

Tranquilizers bring about depression of brain activity and feeling of calmness. Stimulants stimulate the nervous system, and increase alertness and activity. Hallucinogens (Cannabis products) alters thoughts, perceptions and feelings.

---

Q14. Assertion: Ringworms generally occur in skin fold. Such as groin or between toes.

Reason: Heat and moisture helps the fungi to grow.

1. If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
2. If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
3. If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
4. If both the assertion and reason are false.

Answer: (b)

---

Q15. The filariasis pathogen is transmitted to a healthy person through the bite of

1. female Aedes mosquito
2. female Anopheles mosquito
3. female Culex mosquito
4. None of the above

Answer: (c)

The filariasis pathogens are transmitted to a healthy person through the bite of female of the pathogen mosquito Culex vectors. Which also serves as intermediate host.

---

Q16. Match the following columns.

Codes A B C D

1. 4 3 2 1
2. 4 2 1 3
3. 3 2 1 4
4. 2 1 4 3

Answer: (a)

---

Q17. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient's body. Which type of immune response is responsible for such rejections?

1. Physiological immune response
2. Hormonal immune response
3. Cell-mediated immune response
4. Autoimmune response

Answer: (c)

Transplantation of tissue/organ often fails due to non-acceptance by the patient's body therefore, tissue matching and blood group matching are essential before undertaking any graft/transplant. When the immune system recognises the protein in the transplanted tissue or organ as foreign, it initiates cellular immunity.

As a result of this, there is a rejection of transplanted organs. To suppress the immune response during transplantation, histocompatibility antigen and immunosuppressants play an important role.

---

Q18. Read the statements about a certain organ and choose the correct option.

1. It is a large bean-shaped organ.
2. Itmainly contains lymphocytes and phagocytes.
3. It acts as a filter of the blood by trapping blood-borne microorganisms.
4. It is a large reservoir of erythrocyte.
5. It is a secondary lymphoid organ.

1. Tonsils
2. Thymus
3. Appendix
4. Spleen

Answer: (d)

---

Q19. The active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds upon :

1. blood only
2. food in intestine
3. mucosa and submucosa of colon only
4. erythrocytes; mucosa and submucosa of colon

Answer: (d)

---

Q20. The interferons are

1. antibiotic proteins
2. antiviral proteins
3. antigen proteins
4. all of these

Answer: (b)

---

Q21. A cell-coded protein that is formed in response to infection, with most animal viruses, is called

1. interferon
2. antibody
3. histone
4. antigen.

Answer: (a)

---

Q22. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity?

1. Antibodies are protein molecules each of which has four light chains.
2. The antibodies against small pox pathogen are produced by T-lymphocytes.
3. Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of B-lymphocytes.
4. Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake.

Answer: (d)

---

Q23. In heavy smokers, the alveoli of the lungs are enlarged and damaged, which reduces the surface area for the exchange of respiratory gases. This condition is called

1. silicosis
2. asthma
3. emphysema
4. insomnia

Answer: (c)

Emphysema is a type of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) involving damage to the air sacs (alveoli) in the lungs.

---

Q24. Which one of the following is not a property of cancerous cells whereas the remaining three are?

1. They do not remain confined in the area of formation.
2. They compete with normal cells for vital nutrients.
3. They divide in an uncontrolled manner.
4. They show contact inhibition.

Answer: (d)

---

Q25. The cell in the human body invaded by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is

1. macrophage
2. B - cell
3. erythrocyte
4. T- helper cell

Answer: (d)

HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) is a virus that attacks the immune system, the body's natural defence system. White blood cells are an important part of the immune system. HIV infects vital cells in the human immune system such as helper T cells (specifically CD4+ T cells), macrophages, and dendritic cells.

---

Q26. Which of the following will be achieved in next two decades ?

1. A complete understanding of brain-mind interactions
2. Correction of genetic basis of diabetes mellitus
3. Control of cancer
4. Production of biodegradable plastic

Answer: (b)

---

Q27. Antibodies are produced by

1. lymphocytes
2. monocytes
3. leucocytes
4. spleen.

Answer: (a)

Lymphocytes secrete antibodies to destroy microbes and their toxins, reject grafts and kill tumor cells. Antibodies are protein in nature. Monocytes (type of WBC) is phagocytic in nature and engulf bacteria and cellular debris. Spleen is an organ that produces lymphocytes.

---

Q28. Liver damage is termed as

1. Cirrhosis
2. Leeching
3. Aplasia
4. Haemorrhage

Answer: (a)

---

Q29. Which one of the following options gives the correct matching of a disease with its causative organism and mode of infection.

Answer: (c)

---

Q30. Salmonella is related with

1. TB
2. polio
3. typhoid
4. tetanus

Answer: (c)

---

Q31. Which one of the following immunoglobulins does constitute the largest percentage in human milk?

1. lg A
2. lg M
3. lg G
4. lg D

Answer: (a)

Colostrum contains high levels of lgA, which gives passive immunity to foetus.

---

Q32. Proto-oncogenes are also abbreviated as

1. c-onc
2. p-onc
3. p-con
4. c-con

Answer: (a)

---

Q33. The lymph nodes

1. are small solid structures along the lymphatic system.
2. filter lymph fluid as it flows through them, trapping bacteria, viruses and other antigens, which are then destroyed by lymphocytes.

Which of the statements given above is/are corrcet?

1. Only II
2. Only I
3. I and II
4. None of these

Answer: (c)

---

Q34. Select the correct option

1. Ig G, Ig A, Ig G, Ig H, Ig J
2. Ig A, Ig G, Ig E, Ig D, Ig I
3. Ig A, Ig G, Ig E, Ig D, Ig M
4. Ig M, Ig A, Ig E, Ig I, Ig G

Answer: (c)

---

Q35. Assertion: Cancer cells shows uncontrolled growth.

Reason: Cancer cells losses property of contact inhibition.

1. If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
2. If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
3. If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
4. If both the assertion and reason are false.

Answer: (b)

---

Q36. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS?

1. When HIV damages large number of helper T-lymphocytes
2. When the infected retrovirus enters host cells
3. Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person
4. When the viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase

Answer: (a)

---

Q37. Which of the following is involved in passive immunity?

1. IgE
2. IgA
3. IgM
4. IgD

Answer: (b)

IgA antibody is involved in passive immunity. In this type of immunity, antibodies are directly given to protect the body against foreign agents. It is short lived.

---

Q38. What is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plant whose one flowering branch is shown below?

1. Depressant
2. Hallucinogen
3. Stimulant
4. Pain-killer

Answer: (b)

---

Q39. Normal cell have genes called ......A...... which are present in inactivated state but under certain conditions like .....B..... they get transformed to ....C.... Here A, B and C refers to

1. A– viral oncogenes, B– mutation, C– disease causing genes
2. A– cellular oncogenes, B– mutation, C– cancer causing oncogenes
3. A– viral oncogenes, B– mutation, C– tumour causing genes
4. None of the above

Answer: (b)

---

Q40. Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV?

1. HIV is an enveloped retrovirus.
2. HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase.
3. HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse transcriptase.
4. HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response.

Answer: (b)

HIV is spherical virus with a diameter of about 90-120 nm. Its genome consists of a single- stranded RNA filament segmented into two identical filaments and associated with reverse transcriptase enzymes.

The envelope consists of a lipid bilayer derived from host cell membrane and projecting knob like glycoprotein spikes. It contains two protein coats. HIV is a retrovirus that attacks helper T cells.

Without an adequate supply of helper cells, the immune system cannot signal B cells to produce antibodies to kill infected cells, thus body becomes susceptible to infections. This immune deficiency is described by the name acquired immune deficiency syndrome or AIDS.

---

Q41. Ringworm in humans is caused by

1. nematodes
2. fungi
3. bacteria
4. viruses

Answer: (b)

Ringworm (tinea) is a fungal infection of the skin, the scalp, or the nails. Ringworm is caused by the dermatophyte fungi species of Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton and also affects animals, a source of infection for humans.

It can be spread by direct contact or via infected materials. The lesions of ringworm may form partial or complete rings and may cause intense itching. The disease is treated with antifungal agents taken by mouth or applied locally.

---

Q42. The disease chikungunya is transmitted by

1. Aedes mosquitoes
2. House flies
3. Cockroach
4. Female Anopheles

Answer: (a)

---

Q43. Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva and tears, destroys

1. most virus-infected cells
2. all viruses
3. certain types of bacteria
4. certain fungi.

Answer: (c)

Lysozyme is an antibacterial enzyme with natural antibiotic properties. Normally excreted in the tears, nasal mucus, milk, and saliva in most animals, lysozyme is part of the body's first natural defence against bacteria and viruses.

Lysozyme is an enzyme that degrade the polysaccharide protective coating on the surface of many bacteria and viruses (glycoprotein covering) to allow other enzymes and antibodies to find their appropriate attachment sight.

Most of the bacteria affected by lysozyme are not pathogenic. Lysozyme serves as a non-specific innate opsonin by binding to the bacterial surface, reducing the negative charge and facilitating phagocytosis of the bacterium before opsonins from the acquired immune system arrive at the scene. In other words, lysozyme makes it easier for phagocytic white blood cells to engulf bacteria.

---

Q44. The principle of vaccination or immunisation depends on the property of ..... of the immune system. The most appropriate word to fill the blank is

1. antigen
2. memory
3. pathogen
4. plasma cells

Answer: (b)

The principle of vaccination or immunisation is based on the property of memory of the immune system. The memory cells recognise the pathogen quickly and control the invaders by producing a large number of antibodies.

---

Q45. MALT constitutes about ...…… per cent of the lymphoid tissue in human body.

1. 20%
2. 50%
3. 70%
4. 10%

Answer: (b)

MALT is Mucosal Associated Lymphoid Tissue located within the lining of the major tracts like respiratory, digestive and urinogenital tracts. It constitutes nearly 50% of the total lymphoid tissue in the human body.

---

Q46. Entamoeba histolytica is a parasite of

1. liver
2. large intestine
3. lungs
4. kidney

Answer: (b)

Entamoeba histolytica causes amoebiasis. It is a parasite of the large intestine of humans and is commonly contracted by ingesting contaminated water or food.

---

Q47. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake of

1. Opium
2. Cocaine
3. Tobacco (Chewing)
4. Alcohol

Answer: (d)

---

Q48. Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient due to

1. Cell-mediated immune response
2. Humoral immune response
3. Innate immune response
4. Passive immune response

Answer: (a)

---

Q49. In the given flow chart, the replication of retrovirus in a host cell is shown. Observe it carefully and fill up the blank A, B and C.

1. A–Transcriptase, B–Bacterial RNA is produced, C–New viral DNA is produced by the infected cell
2. A–Bacteriophage, B–Viral DNA is produced, C–New viral RNA is produced
3. A–Bacteriophage, B–Viral DNA is produced, C–New viral RNA is produced by the infected cell
4. A–Retrovirus, B–Viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase, C–New viral RNA is produced by the infected cell

Answer: (d)

---

Q50. Consider the following four statements (A to D) regarding kidney transplant and select the two correct ones out of these.

1. Even if a kidney transplant is proper the recipient may need to take immune suppressants for a long time.
2. The cell-mediated immune response is responsible for the graft rejection.
3. The B-lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of the graft.
4. The acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant depends on specific interferons

The two correct statements are:

1. (C) and (D)
2. (B) and (C)
3. (A) and (C)
4. (A) and (B)

Answer: (d)

---

Q51. The following four statements (i - iv) kidney transplant. Identify the two correct statements.

1. Even if a kidney transplant is proper the recipient may need to take immunosuppressants for a long time.
2. The cell-mediated immune response is responsible for the graft rejection.
3. The B-lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of the graft.
4. The acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant depends on the specific interferons.

1. (ii) and (iii)
2. (i) and (ii)
3. (iii) and (iv)
4. (i) and (iii)

Answer: (b)

(iii) The B lymphocyte is responsible for producing antibodies in response to pathogens into our blood to fight with them.

(iv) The acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant does not depend on the specific interferon, but on immune system. Interferon is a protein released in response to the entry of a virus, which has the property of inhibiting virus replication. Interferon prevents the virus from reproducing within the infected cells and can also induce resistance to the virus in other cells.

---

Q52. Which one of the following does correctly match a sexually transmitted disease with its pathogen?

1. Urethritis-Bacillus anthracis
2. Gonorrhoea-Entamoeba histolytica
3. Syphilis-Treponema pallidum
4. Softsore-Bacillus brevis.

Answer: (c)

Syphilis is caused by a spirochete (spiral bacterium) Treponema pallidum. Gonorrhoea is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoea. Urethritis is inflammation of urethra.

---

Q53. Treatment and detection of cancer can be done by

1. chemotherapy
2. radiography
3. surgery
4. All of these

Answer: (d)

---

Q54. Cancerous cells can easily be destroyed by radiation due to

1. fast mutation
2. lack of nutrition
3. rapid cell division
4. lack of oxygen

Answer: (c)

---

Q55. Which is not immunity related disease ?

1. Polio
2. AIDS
3. Cancer
4. Small pox

Answer: (c)

Cancer is not an immunity related disease. Cancer is a disease caused by an uncontrolled division of abnormal cells in the body. It may spread through the lymphatic system or bloodstream to other parts of the body. It is a progressive disease, and goes through several stages. Each stage may produce a number of symptoms.

Some symptoms are produced early and may occur due to a tumour that is growing within an organ or a gland. As the tumour grows, it may press on the nearby nerves, organs, and blood vessels. This causes pain and some pressure which may be the earliest warning signs of cancer.

---

Q56. Virus infected cells secrete a protein called ________ to protect other non-infected cells.

1. Immunoglobulin
2. Cytokine
3. Interferon
4. Clotting factors

Answer: (c)

---

Q57. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually shows symptoms of AIDS?

1. When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T Iymphocytes and damages large number of these.
2. When viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase.
3. With 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person.
4. When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells.

Answer: (c)

---

Q58. Select the correct statement from the ones given below

1. Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate
2. Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain killer
3. Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth
4. Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery

Answer: (b)

---

Q59. The treatment of snake-bite by antivenine is an example of

1. Artificially acquired passive immunity
2. Artificially acquired active immunity
3. Naturally acquired passive immunity
4. Specific natural immunity

Answer: (a)

---

Q60. Which cells actively participate in allergic reaction?

1. Monocytes
2. Mast cell
3. Lymphocytes
4. macrophages

Answer: (b)

---

Q61. Cirrhosis of the liver is caused by

1. LSD
2. cocaine
3. alcohol
4. morphine

Answer: (c)

Cirrhosis is a complication of liver diseases which is characterized by abnormal structure and function of the liver. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by alcohol.

There are many causes of cirrhosis including chemicals (such as alcohol, fat, and certain medications), viruses, toxic metals (such as iron and copper that accumulate in the liver as a result of genetic diseases), and autoimmune liver disease in which the body's immune system attacks the liver.

---

Q62. Antigen binding site of immunoglobulin (antibody) is

1. variable region of light chain
2. variable region of heavy chain
3. constant region of light chain
4. variable region of both heavy and light chain

Answer: (d)

---

Q63. Which of the following diseases is now considered completely eradicated from India?

1. Plague
2. Poliomyelitis
3. Smallpox
4. Kala-azar

Answer: (c)

Small pox is an acute highly communicable disease. It is caused by virus named Variola virus. Now it is eradicated from world including India. It is highly infectious disease starting with high fever, chill, backache and headache, followed by appearance of rash on the third day of illness. The rash appears first on the face, then on the rest of the body. The rash starts as small reddish spots which change into papules. These in turn change into small vesicles containing clear fluid.

Vesicles change into postules. Finally, a scab is formed and it falls off by the third week. These scabs leave deep pits or scars known as pock marks. The virus is present in the oral and nasal discharges of the patients and is ejected during the acts of coughing, sneezing, etc., and infects the healthy people.

---

Q64. Which drug is being excessively taken by some sports persons nowadays?

1. Barbiturates
2. Opioids
3. Cannabinoids
4. Lysergic acid diethyl amides (LSD)

Answer: (c)

Cannabinoids bring about euphoria, excitement, sometimes uncontrolled laughter and dilation of pupil of eyes. These days cannabinoids are taken by some sports persons.

---

Q65. Female Anopheles mosquito is a vector of

1. malaria
2. filariasis
3. typhoid
4. AIDS

Answer: (a)

---

Q66. Sustained high fever (39° to 40° C) and intestinal perforation in severe cases is a symptom of which disease?

1. Typhoid
2. Malaria
3. Cholera
4. Common cold

Answer: (a)

---

Q67. In malignant tumours, the cells proliferate, grow rapidly and move to other parts of the body to form new tumours. This stage of disease is called

1. Metastasis
2. Metagenesis
3. Teratogenesis
4. Mitosis

Answer: (a)

---

Q68. Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV? NEET 2016

1. HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase
2. HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse transcriptase
3. HIV is unenveloped retrovirus
4. HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response

Answer: (a)

This statement is correct. Rest of the statements are incorrect and can be corrected as

• HIV is an enveloped retrovirus.
• HIV escapes the immune cells and attacks helper T-cells of immune system.

---

Q69. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in

1. human RBCs
2. salivary glands of Anopheles
3. gut of female Anopheles
4. human liver.

Answer: (c)

Plasmodium, a tiny protozoan parasite causes malaria in humans, and is transmitted through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquito. When female Anopheles sucks the blood of infected human it takes up gametocytes (sexual stages of parasite) with blood meal. The gametocytes come out of the RBCs into the lumen (cavity) of the stomach of the mosquito.

In the stomach, the male gametocyte divides and forms 6 to 8 long, motile, whip-like microgametes (male gametes). The female gametocyte does not divide but undergoes a process of maturation to become the macrogamete (female gamete). A microgamete penetrates a macrogamete and fertilization (syngamy) takes place, resulting in the formation of a zygote.

The zygote elongates and becomes worm like motile organism called ookinete. Ookinete further changes into sporozoites (mature infective stage of Plasmodium).

---

Q70. Barbiturates and Benzodiazepines are used in clinical conditions like

1. Euphoria and sense of well-being
2. Cancer and its prevention
3. Depression and insomnia
4. Increasing body strength and vigour

Answer: (c)

---

Q71. Take the odd one out

1. Amoebiasis, Giardiasis, Trypanosomiasis
2. Rabies, Influenza, AIDS
3. Taeniasis, Ascariasis, Elephantiasis
4. Cancer, Tuberculosis, Tetanus

Answer: (d)

Rabies, Influenza and AIDS are viral diseases, Amoebiasis, Ascariasis and Trypanosomiasis are caused by Protozoa; Taeniasis, Ascariasis and Elephantiasis are the diseases caused by Helminths but Cancer, Tuberculosis and Tetanus are not related diseases. Tuberculosis and Tetanus are bacterial diseases while cancer is not.

---

Q72. Sporozoites in mosquitoes are stored in

1. Mouth
2. Intestine
3. Salivary glands
4. Proboscis

Answer: (c)

---

Q73. Before any graft/organ transplant, which procedure should be performed?

1. Pedigree analysis
2. Tissue matching
3. CT scan
4. X-ray

Answer: (b)

---

Q74. Which one of the following is not a property of cancerous cells, whereas the remaining three are?

1. They divide in an uncontrolled manner.
2. They do not remain confined in the area of formation.
3. They compete with normal cells for vital nutrients.
4. They show contact inhibition

Answer: (d)

Contact inhibition is a property of normal cells by virtue of which contact with other cells inhibits their uncontrolled growth. Cancerous cells lack this property.

---

Q75. Interferons are synthesized in response to

1. viruses
2. bacteria
3. mycoplasma
4. fungi

Answer: (a)

Interferons are proteins that increase the resistance of a cell to attack by viruses by unmasking genes that synthesize antiviral proteins. In humans, three groups of interferons have been discovered: α-interferons from white blood cells; β-interferons from connective tissue fibroblasts; and γ-interferons from lymphocytes.

---

Q76. Which of the following viruses is not transferred through semen of an infected male?

1. Ebola virus
2. Chikungunya virus
3. Human immunodeficiency virus
4. Hepatitis B virus

Answer: (b)

---

Q77. Which one of the following is a hallucinogenic drug?

1. Lysergic acid diethylamide
2. Morphine
3. Caffeine
4. Opium

Answer: (a)

LSD is a psychedelic drug since it causes optical and auditory hallucinations and induces behavioural abnormalities. Opium and morphine are opiate narcotics that suppress brain activity and relieve pain. Caffeine is a stimulant that temporarily stimulates the nervous system.

---

Q78. The disease chikungunya is transmitted by

1. Aedes mosquitoes
2. house flies
3. cockroach
4. female Anopheles

Answer: (a)

Chikungunya is transmitted by the vector Aedesmosquitoes. Whereas the vector for cholera is housefly. Cockroaches transmit jaundice or yellow fever and is a carrier of food and waterborne disease. Female anopheles is responsible for spreading malaria.

---

Q79. ELISA is used to detect viruses, where

1. Southern blotting is done
2. DNA-probes are required
3. Alkaline phosphatase is the key reagent
4. Catalase is the key reagent

Answer: (c)

ELISA test is a technique used to detect and quantitate extremely small amount of a protein, antibody or antigen with the help of enzyme. The commonly used enzymes are peroxidase and alkaline phosphatase. Southern blotting and DNA probes are used in molecular analysis of DNA. Catalase is not involved in ELISA.

---

Q80. What is indicated by 'a' in the figure?

1. Lymph nodes
2. Lymph vessels
3. Lymph valves
4. Tonsillar capsule

Answer: (a)

---

Q81. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to AIDS?

1. AIDS patients are being fully cured cent percent with proper care and nutrition
2. Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV infection
3. The HIV can be transmitted through eating food together with an infected person
4. The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T-lymphocytes thus reducing their numbers

Answer: (b)

---

Q82. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

1. Aedes aegypti – Yellow fever
2. Culex pipiens – Filariasis
3. Female Anopheles – Leishmaniasis
4. Glossina palpalis – Sleeping sickness

Answer: (c)

Malaria is a vector borne disease that spreads by biting of the female Anopheles mosquito.

---

Q83. Datura is a ________ plant.

1. Hallucinogenic
2. Sedative
3. Excitatory
4. Health tonic

Answer: (a)

---

Q84. Which of the following is an opiate narcotic?

1. Barbiturates
2. LSD
3. Amphetamines
4. Morphine

Answer: (d)

Opiates are derived from opium along with their synthetic relatives. Opiates have narcotic, analgesic, sedative and astringent effects. Narcotic is a drug that induces stupor and relieves pain. Morphine is the main opium alkaloid, which is a strong analgesic and also has sedative and calming effect.

It depresses respiratory centre and contributes to the fall in blood pressure. It can cause release of ADH, reduction in urine output, constipation and mild hyperglycemia, etc. It causes addiction.

---

Q85. Diphtheria is caused by

1. virus
2. bacteria
3. nematodes
4. none of these.

Answer: (b)

Diphtheria is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae (bacteria) usually affecting children upto five years of age. It may start as sore throat, chills with mild fever, sometimes vomiting and headache. Throat and/or tonsils show a grey membrane which may spread down and cause hoarseness and difficulty in breathing.

Nose may be affected giving rise to a blood-tinged nasal discharge from one nostril. If the disease is not treated early and properly the toxin produced by the bacteria affects the heart and the nervous system, and proves fatal. The germs are present in the discharges from the nose and throat of patients and also of healthy people who act as the "carriers".

The patients and the carriers spread the disease through acts like kissing, talking, coughing and sneezing. Incubation period is of 2 - 5 days. The patient should be kept in a well-ventilated room if there is no isolation hospital in the town. The most important preventive measure-against this disease is that all babies should be immunised within the first six weeks of birth using DPT vaccine.

---

Q86. To which type of barriers under innate immunity, do the saliva in the mouth and the tears from the eyes, belong?

1. Cytokine barriers
2. Physical barriers
3. Cellular barriers
4. Physiological barriers

Answer: (d)

The examples of physiological barriers are hydrochloric acid in stomach, saliva in mouth, lysozyme in tears, saliva, etc.

---

Q87. Assertion : Active immunity is slow and takes time to give its full effective response.

Reason : Injecting the microbes intentionally during immunization or infectious organisms gaining access into body during natural infection induces active immunity.

1. If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
2. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
3. If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
4. If both Assertion and Reason are false.

Answer: (c)

Cocaine is obtained from the coca plant, Erthyroxylum coca. Cocaine is commonly called as coke or crack which is usually snored. It has a potent stimulating action of euphoria and increased energy. It interferes with the transport of the neurotransmitter dopamine. Its increased dosages cause hallucinations.

---

Q88. Which of the following vaccine has been produced from yeast by recombinant DNA technology ?

1. Hepatitis B
2. Hepatitis A
3. Hib
4. Oral polio

Answer: (a)

Vaccine for human hepatitis B virus was prepared using antigen produced by recombinant technology in yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae). Yeast-derived vaccine was safe and was equally immunogenic and protective against hepatitis B as plasma-derived vaccine.

---

Q89. Which of the following is an opiate narcotic?

1. Barbiturates
2. LSD
3. Amphetamines
4. Morphine

Answer: (d)

Opiates are derived from opium along with their synthetic relatives. Opiates have narcotic, analgesic, sedative and astringent effects. Narcotic is a drug that induces stupor and relieves pain.

Morphine is the main opium alkaloid, which is a strong analgesic and also has sedative and calming effect. It depresses respiratory centre and contributes to the fall in blood pressure. It can cause release of ADH, reduction in urine output, constipation and mild hyperglycaemia etc. It causes addiction.

Barbiturates are substituted derivatives of barbituric acid. They reduce anxiety and induce sleep. Amphetamines are synthetic drugs which are strong stimulants. LSD (Lysergic acid diethylamide) is the most powerful hallucinogens that causes severe damage to central nervous system.

---

Q90. The mosquito larvae are fed upon by

1. Gambusia
2. Ambrosia
3. Mosquito repellent
4. Turtles

Answer: (a)

---

Q91. If regular dose of drugs/alcohol is abruptly discontinued it causes ________.

1. Withdrawal syndrome
2. Hallucinations
3. Diversion to criminal activities
4. Severe depression

Answer: (a)

---

Q92. Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below and select the right option giving their source and use.

Answer: (d)

Molecule (a) represents structure of morphine. Morphineis the most abundant alkaloid found in opium, the dried sap (latex) derived from shallowly slicing the unripe seedpods of the opium, or common and/or edible, poppy papaver somniferum. Morphine is a potent opiate analgesic drug that is used to relieve severe pain.

---

Q93. Assertion: PMNL are cellular barriers.

Reason: Acid in stomach is physiological barrier.

1. If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
2. If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
3. If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
4. If both the assertion and reason are false.

Answer: (a)

---

Q94. Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine:

1. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
2. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
3. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
4. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

Answer: (c)

---

Q95. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying

1. leucocytes
2. B-lymphocytes
3. helper T-lymphocytes
4. thrombocytes.

Answer: (c)

---

Q96. Opiate narcotic is

1. heroin
2. charas
3. bhang
4. nicotine

Answer: (a)

The drugs derived from opium along with their synthetic relatives are called opioids or opiates. Opiates have narcotic, analgesic, astringent (that causes contraction of body parts), and sedative effect, i.e., heroin.

---

Q97. Opiate narcotic is

1. heroin
2. charas
3. bhang
4. nicotine

Answer: (a)

---

Q98. Match Column -I with Column - II.

1. A-(c); B-(a); C-(b); D-(d)
2. A-(a); B-(c); C-(b); D-(d)
3. A-(b); B-(c); C-(a); D-(d)
4. A-(d); B-(c); C-(a); D-(b)

Answer: (a)

---

Q99. Humoral immune system defends against viruses and bacteria is present in

1. lymph
2. blood
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of these

Answer: (c)

---

Q100. Which one of the following statements is correct?

1. Malignant tumours may exhibit metastasis
2. Heroin accelerates body functions
3. Benign tumours show the property of metastasis
4. Patients who have undergone surgery are given cannabinoids to relieve pain.

Answer: (a)

Tumour is of two types : benign and malign. Malign or malignant tumour exhibit metastasis. It is the phenomenon in which cancer cells spread to distant sites through body fluids to develop secondary tumour.

---