Top 100+ Evolution - Biology Questions and Answers For NEET 2024 Exam Preparation

Q1. Assertion (A): Lichens act as pollution indicators.

Reason (R): These do not grow in areas that are polluted.

1. If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
2. If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
3. If A is true, but R is false
4. If A is false, but R is true

Answer: (b)

Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Lichens are good pollution indicators. These do not grow in areas that are polluted because these organisms are sensitive to $SO_2$ gas present in polluted areas up to great concentration.

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Q2. Which of the following is/are incorrect about neanderthal man?

1. They had large brain around 900 c.c.
2. They lived in near east and central Asia between 100000-40000 years back.
3. They used hides to protect their body and buried their dead.
4. They had no religious feeling.

1. None of these
2. All of these
3. (i) and (iv)
4. (ii) and (iii)

Answer: (c)

Neanderthal was the first specimen to be recognized as an early human fossil. They had a brain size of 1400cc and lived in near east and central Asia between 100000 - 40000 years back.

Neanderthals made and used a diverse set of cultured tools, controlled fire and lived in shelters, made and wore clothing, were skilled hunters of large animals and also ate plant foods, and occasionally made symbolic or ornamental objects.

There is evidence that Neanderthals deliberately buried their dead and occasionally even marked their graves with offerings, such as flowers.

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Q3. Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life.

1. The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes.
2. The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen.

Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct?

1. (A) is correct but (B) is false
2. Both (A) and (B) are correct.
3. Both (A) and (B) are false
4. is correct but (A) is false

Answer: (b)

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Q4. $1^{st}$ life on earth was

1. autotrophs
2. cyanobacteria
3. chemoheterotrophs
4. photoautotrophs

Answer: (c)

The first living beings were prokaryotic, like bacteria. They were single-celled. Nucleic acid core consisted of naked DNA. These living beings were present in the environment of soupy sea having abundant organic molecules. Nutritionally they were chemoheterotrophs.

They absorbed the organic materials from outside both for body building and liberation of energy. Respiration was anaerobic since free oxygen was absent in the environment.

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Q5. Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era was characterised by:

1. Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms appeared
2. Radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal-like reptiles
3. Flowering plants and first dinosaurs appeared
4. Gymnosperms were dominant plants and first birds appeared

Answer: (d)

Jurassic period of meoszoic era was about 19-20 crore years ago & lasted for about 5.5-6 crore years. The climate was hot and damp. It is called the age of dinosaurs. $I^{st}$ primitive bird Archaeopteryx evolved from reptiles. $I^{st}$ angiosperm appeared as a dicotyledon but gymnosperms were dominant.

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Q6. The spark-discharge apparatus to test chemical evolution of life was designed by

1. Dixon and Jolly
2. Urey and Miller
3. Jacob and Monod
4. Oparin and Haldane

Answer: (b)

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Q7. Which of the following structures is homologous to the wing of a bird?

1. Hindlimb of rabbit
2. Wing of a moth
3. Flipper of whale
4. Dorsal fin of a shark

Answer: (c)

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Q8. Which of the following defines Hardy–Weinberg's law?

1. $q^2 + p^2 + 2pq = 0$
2. $p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 0$
3. $p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1$
4. $p^2 + 3pq + q^2 = 1$

Answer: (c)

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Q9. The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic adaptations in response to a common environmental challenge, is called

1. adaptive radiation
2. non-random evolution
3. natural selection
4. convergent evolution.

Answer: (d)

Convergent evolution is the development of superficially similar structures in unrelated organisms, usually because the organisms live in the same kind of environment. Examples are the wings of insects and birds and the streamlined bodies of whales and fish.

One can say that it is the similar habitat that has resulted in selection of similar adaptive features in different groups of organisms but toward the same function. An example of convergent evolution is the similar nature of the flight/wings of insects, birds, pteridosaurs, and bats.

All four serve the same function and are similar instructure, but each evolved independently. Some species of the lens of eyes also evolved independently in various animals.

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Q10. What was the most significant trend in evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors ?

1. Shortening of jaws
2. Upright posture
3. Binocular vision
4. Increasing brain capacity

Answer: (d)

The most significant trend in evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors is development of brain capacity.

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Q11. Identify what the given diagram indicates?

1. Divergent evolution
2. Convergent evolution
3. Recapitulation
4. Parallel evolution

Answer: (a)

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Q12. Evolution of unique groups of mammals in South America, Africa and Australia is an evidence supporting

1. Glaciation
2. Continental drift
3. Crustal movement
4. Geographical juxtaposition

Answer: (b)

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Q13. Which of the following is closest relative of man?

1. Gorilla
2. Chimpanzee
3. Orangutan
4. Gibbon

Answer: (b)

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Q14. Which one of the following options gives one correct example each of convergent evolution and divergent evolution?

Answer: (a)

Development of similar adaptive functional structures in unrelated groups of organisms is called convergent evolution. It shows analogy. Examples are wings of butterfly and birds, eye of the octopus and the mammals, flippers of penguins and dolphins, etc.

On the other hand, divergent evolution involves development of different functional structures along different directions due to adaptations to different needs from a common ancestral form. For example, forelimbs of vertebrates (whales, bat, cheetah, human).

Though these perform different functions, they have similar anatomical structures.

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Q15. Identify the phenomenon in which a new set of population is formed from the set of existing population due to the random excessive change in the allele frequency.

1. Genetic drift
2. Founder effect
3. Bottle-neck effect
4. All of these

Answer: (b)

Sometimes the change in allele frequency is so different in the new sample of population that they become a different species. The original drifted population becomes the founder of new population and the effect is called founder effect.

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Q16. Consider the following statements.

1. Microbes are able to grow on new nutrient media due to naturalselection.
2. Adaptive ability is inherited and has genetic basis.

Select the correct option.

1. I is true, II is false
2. Both I and II are true
3. Both I and II are false
4. I is false, II is true

Answer: (b)

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Q17. Atmosphere of earth just before the origin of life consisted of

1. $CO_2 , NH_3$ , and $CH_2$
2. water vapours, $CH_4 , NH_3$ and oxygen.
3. $CH_4 , NH_3 , H_2$ and water vapours.
4. $CH_4 , O_3 , O_2$ and water vapours.

Answer: (c)

The primitive atmosphere was reducing due to lack of free molecular oxygen. The early atmosphere contained ammonia ($NH_3$), water vapour ($H_2$O), hydrogen ($H_2$), methane ($CH_4$).

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Q18. How many of these periods belong to the Paleozoic era?
Cretaceous, Jurrasic, Triassic, Permian, Carboniferous, Devonian, Silurin

1. 2
2. 1
3. 3
4. 4

Answer: (d)

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Q19. In the developmental history of mammalian heart, it is observed that it passes through a two chambered fish like heart, three chambered frog like heart and finally four chambered stage. To which hypothesis can this above cited statement be approximated?

1. Mendalian principles
2. Lamarck's principle
3. Biogenetic law
4. Hardy-Weinberg law

Answer: (c)

Haeckel's biogenetic law states that "Ontogeny repeats phylogeny". Ontogeny is the life history of an organism while phylogeny is the evolutionary history of the race of that organism. In other words an organism repeats its ancestral history during development. Therefore, during embryonic development the mammalian heart first takes the form of fish, then frog and at last mammal.

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Q20. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding high milk output represents

1. directional as it pushes the mean of the character in one direction
2. stabilising selection as it stabilises this character in the population
3. disruptive as it splits the population into two, one yielding higher output and the other lower output
4. stabilising followed by disruptive as stabilises the population of produce higher yielding cows

Answer: (a)

Directional selection leads to change in the phenotypic characters of a population in one direction. In the case of artificial selection to obtain high milk yielding cows, it is intentionally done to increase the milk production, hence, it is directional. This is because only high milk yielding cows are produced.

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Q21. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita are examples of

1. analogous organs
2. vestigial organs
3. retrogressive evolution
4. homologous organs

Answer: (d)

The organs which have the same fundamental structure but are different in function are called homologous organs. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita both arises in the axillary position, but have different functions.

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Q22. According to fossils discovered up to present time origin and evolution of man was started from

1. Africa
2. France
3. Java
4. China

Answer: (a)

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Q23. One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is:

1. speciation through reproductive isolation
2. preventing speciation
3. random creation of new species
4. no change in the isolated fauna

Answer: (a)

Speciation takes place via reproductive isolation which is the most important consequence of geographical isolation.

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Q24. Experimental evidence of chemical evolution was given by

1. Haldane
2. Miller
3. Oparin
4. All of these

Answer: (b)

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Q25. Consider the following statements.

1. Evolution by natural selection have started when cellularforms of life with differences in metabolic capability originated on earth.
2. The essence of Darwinian theory about evolution is natural selection.

Select the correct option.

1. Both I and II are true
2. I is true, II is false
3. I is false, II is true
4. Both I and II are false

Answer: (a)

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Q26. The Jurassic period belongs to the era

1. Mesozoic
2. Cenozoic
3. Palaeozoic
4. Archaeozoic

Answer: (a)

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Q27. The golden age of reptile was

1. Cenozoic era
2. Mesozoic era
3. Palaeozoic era
4. Proterozoic era

Answer: (b)

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Q28. Which is the most common mechanism of genetic variation in the population of the sexually reproducing organism?

1. Chromosomal aberrations
2. Transduction
3. Genetic drift
4. Recombination

Answer: (d)

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Q29. Which one of the following statements is correct?

1. All plant and animal cells are totipotent
2. There is no evidence of the existence of gills during embryogenesis of mammals
3. Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
4. Stem cells are specialised cells

Answer: (c)

Ontogeny repeats phylogeny.

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Q30. Which of the following are homologous organs?

1. Wings of bat and butterfly
2. Wings of birds and locust
3. Wings of birds and pectoral fins of fish
4. Legs of frog and cockroach

Answer: (c)

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Q31. The conclusions drawn by Darwin and Wallace were

1. The ancestors of existing life forms were present at different periods in the history of earth
2. All existing life forms share similarities and common ancestors
3. The geological history of earth correlates with the biological history of earth
4. All of the above

Answer: (d)

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Q32. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option.

Codes:

1. A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
2. A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
3. A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
4. A – IV, B – I, C – III, D – II

Answer: (d)

Alfred Russel Wallace is best known for independently conceiving the theory of evolution through natural selection. His paper on the subject was jointly published with some of Charles Darwin's writings in 1858. Malthus wrote an Essay on the Principle of Population, which describes how unchecked population growth is exponential while the growth of the food supply was expected to be arithmetical. The Hardy-Weinberg principle states that allele and genotype frequencies in a population will remain constant from generation to generation in the absence of other evolutionary influences.

The equation for genotype frequencies is: $p^{2+} 2pq + q^{2}$ = 1. Industrial melanism is an effect of urban pollution prominent in Biston betularia. It is the phenomenon of an organism evolving dark pigmentation when exposed to an environment polluted by dark soot deposit and sulphuric buildup from industrial pollution. In this type of industrial melanism, the darker pigmented individuals develop a higher fitness and are favoured by natural selection.

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Q33. Select the incorrect statements.

1. Natural selection is essential for evolution.
2. Natural selection does not include variations.
3. Concept of natural selection was given by Hugo de Vries.
4. Mutation is a sudden inheritable change.
5. Synthetic theory is also called Neo-Darwinism theory of evolution.

The correct combination is

1. II, III and IV
2. I, II and III
3. III, IV and V
4. II and III

Answer: (d)

Statements II and III are incorrect and their corrected forms are as follows

• Natural selection includes variation.
• Theory of natural selection was given by Charles Darwin. This theory states that the variations which are favourable to environment and inheritable are the major cause of evolution.

Rest of the statements, i.e. statement I, IV and V are correct.

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Q34. Evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and spreading to other geographical areas is known as.

1. natural selection
2. adaptive radiation
3. migration
4. divergent evolution

Answer: (b)

Process of evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and radiating to other area of geographical areas is called adaptive radiations. Example : Darwin’s finches, Australian marsupials.

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Q35. Select the incorrect statement from the following:

1. Linkage is an exception to the principle of independent assortment in heredity
2. Small population size results in random genetic drift in a population
3. Baldness is a sex-limited trait
4. Galactosemia is an inborn error of metabolism

Answer: (b)

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Q36. Dinosaurs were the

1. Extinct reptiles
2. First mammals
3. Giant mammals
4. First amphibians

Answer: (a)

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Q37. Assertion: Single step large mutation is called saltation.

Reason: Mutation is responsible for speciation.

1. If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
2. If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
3. If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
4. If both the assertion and reason are false.

Answer: (a)

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Q38. Which one of the following describes correctly the homologous structures?

1. Organs with anatomical dissimilarities, but performing same functions
2. Organs appearing only in embryonic stage and disappearing later in the adult
3. Organs with anatomical similarities, but performing different functions
4. Organs that have no function now, but had an important function in ancestors

Answer: (c)

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Q39. According to Darwin, the organic evolution is due to

1. Competition within closely related species
2. Intraspecific competition
3. Interspecific competition
4. Reduced feeding efficiency in one species due to the presence of interfering species.

Answer: (c)

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Q40. Genetic equilibrium refers to the phenomenon in which

1. the total genes remain constant in a population
2. the trait remains constant in a population
3. the total genes keeps on varying in a population
4. traits keeps on varying in a population

Answer: (a)

Hardy-Weinberg principle states that allele frequencies remains constant from generation to generation. This is called as genetic equilibrium.

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Q41. Dinosaurs dominated the world in which of the following geological eras?

1. Jurassic
2. Cenozoic
3. Mesozoic
4. Devonian

Answer: (a)

Dinosaurs dominated in Jurassic period of mesozoic era and were extinct by cretaceous period.

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Q42. Which of the following is an example of anthropogenic evolution?

1. Selection of resistant varieties due to pesticides.
2. Selection of resistant varieties due to herbicides.
3. Industrial melanism
4. All the above

Answer: (d)

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Q43. The Miller-Urey abiotic synthesis experiment (and other subsequent, similar experiments) showed that...

1. the earliest life forms introduced large amounts of oxygen to the atmosphere.
2. simple organic molecules can form spontaneously under conditions like those thought to prevail early in the earth's history.
3. life can be created in a test tube.
4. long chains of DNA can form under abiotic conditions.

Answer: (b)

In 1953, Stanley Miller and Harold Urey created, in the laboratory, conditions comparable to those of early Earth, with water vapour, hydrogen, methane, and ammonia. The Miller-Urey apparatus produced a variety of amino acids and other organic compounds found in living organisms today.

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Q44. Study of fossils is

1. herpetology
2. palaeontology
3. saurology
4. organic evolution.

Answer: (b)

Palaeontology is the study of extinct organisms, including their structure, environment, evolution, and distribution, as revealed by their fossil remains. Herpetology is the study of reptiles and amphibians. Saurology is the study of snakes. Organic evolution deals with study of origin of life and origin of new species.

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Q45. Evidence that evolution of life forms has indeed taken place on earth has come from

1. morphological and comparative anatomical studies
2. fossil studies (palaeontological evidences)
3. biochemical studies
4. All of the above

Answer: (d)

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Q46. The classical example of adaptive radiation in development of new species is

1. marsupials of Australia
2. Darwin's finches
3. locomotion in mammals
4. All of the above

Answer: (d)

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Q47. Which of the following pairs are correct?

1. Seal flippers and bat paw are homologous.
2. Bat wing and insect wing are analogous.
3. Insect wing and bird wing are homologous.
4. Thorn of bougainvillea and tendril of pea are analogous.

Answer: (b)

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Q48. Which one of the following is not a living fossil?

1. Archaeopteryx
2. Sphenodon
3. Peripatus
4. King crab

Answer: (a)

Archaeopteryx is a fossil (dead) found from the Mesozoic rocks. It is a connecting link between reptiles and birds.

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Q49. The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic adaptations in response to a common environmental challenge is called

1. Convergent evolution
2. Natural selection
3. Non-random evolution
4. Adaptive radiation

Answer: (a)

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Q50. The diagram given below shows the skull of two different mammals. Which of the following accurately describes the differences between these skulls?

1. Skull A has more brain capacity than skull B.
2. Skull A has more teeth than skull B.
3. Skull A is of a human and skull B is of an ape.
4. Skull A is of an ape and skull B is of human.

Answer: (d)

The diagrams of two skulls of two different mammals show that skull A is of an ape and skull B is of human.

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Q51. Which one of the following describes correctly the homologous structures ?

1. Organs with anatomical dissimilarities, but performing same function
2. Organs with anatomical similarities, but performing different functions
3. Organs that have no function now, but had an important function in ancestor
4. Organs appearing only in embryonic stage and disappearing later in the adult

Answer: (b)

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Q52. Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur by chance rather than by natural selection. This is referred to as

1. Random mating
2. Genetic flow
3. Genetic drift
4. Genetic load

Answer: (c)

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Q53. Analogous organs arise due to

1. Artificial selection
2. Divergent evolution
3. Genetic drift
4. Convergent evolution

Answer: (d)

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Q54. According to Hardy-Weinberg principle, allele and genotype frequencies in a population will remain constant from generation to generation in the absence of other evolutionary influences. It makes several assumptions which were given below.

1. Random Mating
2. Sexual Reproduction
3. Non-overlapping Generations
4. Occurrence of Natural Selection
5. Small size of population

Identify two assumptions which do not met for a population to reach Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium?

1. ii and iv
2. iv and v
3. iii, iv and v
4. i, ii and iii

Answer: (b)

Occurrence of natural selection and small size of population do not met for a population to reach Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium. For Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium to be reached natural selection cannot be occurring.

If populations are undergoing natural selection at the locus under consideration allele frequencies will be changing in a specific direction and changing continuously, Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium predicts that allele frequencies will stay constant. Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium assumes that population size is very large.

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Q55. The diagram represents Miller's experiment. Choose the correct combination of labelling:

1. A: Electrodes, B: $NH_3 + H_2$ O, C: Hot water, D: Tap, E: U trap
2. A: Electrodes, B: $NH_3 + H_2 + H_2 O + CH_4$ , C: Hot water, D: Vacuum, E: U trap
3. A: Electrodes, B: $NH_3 + H_2 + H_2 O, CH_4$ , C: Cold water, D: Vacuum, E: U trap
4. A: Electrodes, B: $NH_3 + H_2 + H_2 O + CH_4$ , C: Steam, D: Vacuum, E: U Trap
5. A: Electrodes, B: $NH_3 + CH_4$ , C: Coldwater, D: Sink, E: U trap

Answer: (c)

Q56. The theory of spontaneous generation stated that

1. Life can arise from both living and non-living.
2. Life arose from living forms only.
3. Life can arise from non-living things only.
4. Life arises spontaneously, neither from living nor from the non-living.

Answer: (c)

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Q57. The first attempt to solve the problem of mechanism of organic evolution was made by

1. Darwin
2. Oparin
3. Wallace
4. Lamarck

Answer: (d)

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Q58. Humming birds and Hawk illustrate

1. homology
2. convergent evolution
3. adaptive radiation
4. parallel evolution.

Answer: (c)

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Q59. The organs of different species that are related to each other through common descent though becomes functionally different are called

1. Analogous
2. Vestigial
3. Homologous
4. None of these

Answer: (c)

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Q60. Which of the following is an example for link, species?

1. Dodo bird
2. Lobe fish
3. Sea weed
4. Chimpanzee

Answer: (b)

Lobe fish is an example for link species. About 350 mya, fish with stout and strong fins could move on land and go back to water. These were called lobes and were later evolved in first amphibians that lived both on land and water, e.g., coelocanth.

Dodo is an extinct flightless bird. Sea weed is multicellular benthic marine algae Chimpanzees are the closest living relatives of humans.

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Q61. The bones of forelimbs of whale, bat, cheetah and man are similar in structure, because

1. they share a common ancestor
2. one organism has given rise to another
3. they perform the same function
4. they have biochemical similarities

Answer: (a)

The bones of forelimbs of whale, bat, cheetah and man are similar in structure, because they have a common ancestor.

These are homologous organs which have different functions across diverse forms, but are developed along the same pattern. These organs arise due to divergent evolution.

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Q62. The most accepted line of descent in human evolution is

1. Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Homo sapiens
2. Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo sapiens → Homo habilis
3. Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens
4. Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Homo sapiens

Answer: (c)

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Q63. The raw material for organic evolution is

1. Mutation
2. Asexual reproduction
3. Nutritive substances
4. Effect of hormones

Answer: (a)

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Q64. Which one of the following amino-acid was not found to be synthesised in Miller’s experiment?

1. Glutamic acid
2. Aspartic acid
3. Alanine
4. Glycine

Answer: (a)

Glutamic Acid is one of the non-essential amino acids, closely related to glutamine. The two constitute a substantial fraction of the amino acids in many proteins(10–20% in many cases and up to 45% in some plant proteins).

An important metabolic intermediate as well as a neurotransmitter molecule in the central nervous system, glutamic acid finds uses in medicine and biochemical research. Its sodium salt is the food flavour enhancer monosodium glutamate (MSG).

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Q65. What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors?

1. Binocular vision
2. Shortening of jaws
3. Increasing cranial capacity
4. Upright posture

Answer: (c)

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Q66. Which of the following is not true for a species?

1. Gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species.
2. Members of a species can interbreed.
3. Each species is reproductively isolated from every other species.
4. Variations occur among members of a species.

Answer: (a)

Species may be defined as an uniform interbreeding population or group of individuals which freely interbreed among themselves. Gene flow occurs between populations of a species by gene migration i.e., emigration and immigration.

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Q67. Homo sapiens most likely arose in

1. America
2. India
3. England
4. Africa

Answer: (d)

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Q68. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of

1. convergent evolution
2. homology
3. analogy
4. adaptive radiation

Answer: (b)

Homologous organs are those organs which have the same fundamental structure but are different in functions. Wings of birds and forelimbs of horse show homology because skeletal parts of their forelimbs are similar in structure and arrangement but have different functions.

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Q69. Lamarck's theory of evolution is also known as

1. theory of genetic characters
2. theory of use and disuse of organs
3. theory of spontaneous characters
4. theory of impose characters

Answer: (b)

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Q70. How old is the universe?

1. 20 billion years
2. 10 billion years
3. 5 billion years
4. 15 billion years

Answer: (a)

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Q71. The earliest fossil form in the phylogeny of horse is

1. Eohippus
2. Merychippus
3. Mesohippus
4. Equus

Answer: (a)

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Q72. Assertion (A): Analogous structures are different in appearance and have same function.

Reason (R): Divergent evolution leads to analogy.

1. If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
2. If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
3. If A is true, but R is false
4. If A is false, but R is true

Answer: (c)

Assertion is true, but Reason is false and it can be corrected as

Divergent evolution gives rise to homology. Analogy arises due to convergent evolution.

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Q73. Industrial melanism is an example of:

1. Mutation
2. Natural selection
3. Leo Lamarckism
4. Neo Darwinism

Answer: (b)

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Q74. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of heterozygous individual is represented by

1. 2 pq
2. $p^2$
3. pq
4. $q^2$

Answer: (a)

Hardy-Weinberg principle states that the allele frequencies in a population are stable and remain constant from generation to generation. This can be expressed by the equation

$p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1 or (p + q)^2 = 1$

where, $p^2$ represents frequency of homozygous dominant genotype, 2 pq represents the frequency of heterozygous genotype and $q^2$ represents the frequency of homozygous recessive genotype. Hence, option (b) is correct.

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Q75. Reason of diversity in living being is

1. long term evolutionary change
2. mutation
3. gradual change
4. short term evolutionary change.

Answer: (a)

The organisms which are provided with favourable variations would survive, because they are the fittest to face their surroundings, while the unfit are destroyed.

Darwin considered that useful variations are transmitted to the offspring and appear more prominently in succeeding generations. After some generations these continuous and gradual variations in the possessor would be so distinct that they form a new species.

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Q76. Which of the following is not true for a species?

1. Each species is reproductively isolated from every other species.
2. Members of a species can interbreed.
3. Gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species.
4. Variations occur among members of a species

Answer: (c)

Species may be defined as an uniform interbreeding population or group of individuals which freely interbreed among themselves. Gene flow occurs between populations of a species by gene migration i.e., emigration and immigration.

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Q77. Hardy-Weinberg principle can be expressed as

1. $p^2 + 2pq + q^2 ≥ 1$
2. $p^2 - 2pq - q^2 = 1$
3. $p^2 + 2pq + q^2 ≤ 1$
4. $p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1$

Answer: (d)

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Q78. The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is

1. Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Australopithecus → Homo erectus
2. Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus
3. Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus
4. Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus

Answer: (c)

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Q79. Theory of inheritance of acquired characters was given by

1. Lamarck
2. Wallace
3. Darwin
4. De Vries.

Answer: (a)

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Q80. In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa. Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is

1. 0.5
2. 0.4
3. 0.6
4. 0.7.

Answer: (c)

According to Hardy Weinberg principle

$p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1; (p + q)^2 = 1$

(AA) $p^2$ = 360 out of 1000 individual

or $p^2$ = 0.36

Therefore, p = 0.6.

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Q81. Evidence which favours the theory of acquired characters are

1. the absence of limbsin snakes.
2. the presence of webbed toes in aquatic bird.
3. lack of pigments in cave dwelling animals.
4. Darwin finches.
5. melanisation peppered moths.

Choose the correct option.

1. II and III
2. I and II
3. I, II and IV
4. I, II and III

Answer: (d)

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Q82. Cause of mimicry is

1. offence
2. concealment
3. defence
4. both (a) and (c).

Answer: (d)

Mimicry is specially evolved primarily for concealment and protection. Concealment itself may prove to be defensive and may also help in offence. Mimicry is defined as the resemblance of one organism to another or to any natural object.

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Q83. The first form of life arose slowly through evolutionary forces from non-living molecules by

1. Biogenesis
2. Panspermia
3. Abiogenesis
4. Special creation

Answer: (a)

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Q84. Palaeontological evidences for evolution refer to the

1. homologous organs
2. development of embryo
3. fossils
4. analogous organs

Answer: (c)

Palaeontological evidences for evolution refer to the evidences from fossils. The preserved remains or traces of organisms from the distant past are fossils and its study is called Palaeontology. The other options are not correct because the development patterns of embryo refer to embryological evidences for evolution.

Homologous and analogous organs provide evidence for comparative anatomy and morphology.

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Q85. Arrange the ascending order of extinction (reptiles):

1. Thecodonts, Dinosaurs, Pelycosaurs, Therapsids
2. Pelycosaurs, Thecodonts, Therapsids, Dinosaurs
3. Dinosaurs, Therapsids, Thecodonts, Pelycosaurs
4. Therapsids, Thecodonts, Pelycosaurs, Dinosaurs

Answer: (b)

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Q86. Who said that organisms develop from pre-existing organisms?

1. Louis Pasteur
2. Aristotle
3. Alexander Oparin
4. Thomas Hunt Morgan

Answer: (a)

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Q87. Assertion: Sweet potato and potato is an example for analogy.

Reason: They have different origin but perform same function that is storage of food.

1. If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
2. If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
3. If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
4. If both the assertion and reason are false.

Answer: (b)

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Q88. $(p + q)^2 = p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1$ represents an equation used in

1. Mendelian genetics
2. Population genetics
3. Biometrics
4. Molecular genetics

Answer: (b)

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Q89. Modern theory of origin of life' was propounded by

1. Miller
2. Oparin
3. Darwin
4. Khorana

Answer: (b)

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Q90. Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking; forelimbs of whale used in swimming and forelimbs of bats used in flying are an example of:

1. Adaptive radiation
2. Analogous organs
3. Homologous organs
4. Convergent evolution

Answer: (c)

Organs which have a common fundamental anatomical plan and similar embryonic origin whatever varied functions they may perform are regarded as homologous organs.

For examples the flippers of a whale, a bats wing, the fore-limb of a horse, a bird's wing and forelimbs of human are structurally as well as functionally different.

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Q91. Darwin was influenced by reading the essays of

1. Spencer
2. Wallace
3. Mendel
4. Malthus

Answer: (d)

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Q92. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. Proconsul was perhaps the common ancestor of apes and man
2. Present apes are ancestors of man anatomically
3. Proconsul was the ancestor of man and not of apes
4. None of these

Answer: (a)

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Q93. The first organisms that invaded land were

1. Plants
2. Animals
3. Amphibians
4. Reptiles

Answer: (a)

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Q94. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000 years ago, in Europe, Asia and parts of Africa, With short stature, heavy eyebrows, retreating foreheads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky bodies, a lumbering gait and stooped posture was

1. Neanderthal human
2. Homo habilis
3. Cro-magnan humans
4. Ramapithecus

Answer: (a)

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Q95. The four elements that make up 99% of all elements found in a living system are:

1. C, H, O, S
2. H, O, C, N
3. C, H, O, P
4. C, N, O, P

Answer: (b)

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Q96. Adaptive radiation refers to

1. migration of members of a species to different geographical areas
2. adaptations due to geographical isolation
3. evolution of different species from a common ancestor
4. power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of environments

Answer: (c)

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Q97. Variations during mutations of meiotic recombination are

1. Random and directional
2. Random and directionless
3. Random and small
4. Random, small and directional

Answer: (b)

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Q98. Which of the following pairs of terms is not related?

1. Vestigial structure - Appendix
2. Evolution - Natural selection
3. Analogous structures - Butterfly wings
4. Adaptive radiations - Vertebrates hearts or brains

Answer: (d)

Adaptive radiations - Darwin finches and marsupials. Vertebrate's hearts and brains are the examples of homologous organ.

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Q99. Which one does not favour Lamarckian concept of inheritance of acquired characters?

1. Presence of webbed toes in aquatic birds
2. Lack of pigment in cave dwellers
3. Absence of limbs in snakes
4. Melanization of peppered moth in industrial areas

Answer: (d)

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Q100. The processes of ________ and ________ generate variation and ________ produces adaptation to the environment.

1. Mutation, sexual recombination, genetic drift
2. Sexual selection, natural selection, mutation
3. Genetic drift, mutation, sexual recombination
4. Mutation, sexual recombination, natural selection

Answer: (d)

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